Christian discovers YHWH, Shares "Evidence' – 3 – A Look Into The New Testament

[This is the 3rd contributed article by “RS”, originally shared with his friend BAN@S6K, which we have been granted permission to post as a series.  

 

If you have not yet done so, please read the earlier posts: Christian Discovers YHWH, Shares “Evidence” & Christian Discovers YHWH, Shares “Evidence” – 2.

 

The original article has been reformatted according to S6K usual format which our visitors/readers have grown accustomed to. Sample: TNK verses are colorcoded in Israel blue while NT verses are in red to indicate “caution”.  Unfortunately, we are unable to print Hebrew alphabets, and unable to format the side-by-side 4 column comparison of verses in the Gospels, our apologies to our contributing guest writer. ]

 

Shalowm

 

To All Who study the Torah and Love YHWH with all their hearts,
After I published my 2 documents on the core issue of life — who should we worship –and –an inquiry into the divinity of Jesus — I got emails asking me to explain some New Testament verses …I have attached what I pray will be a document that will stimulate your thinking about New Testament verses …
— 
May Yahweh (YHWH, Hebrew name of God)
creator of heaven and earth,
bless you and your family abundantly!

“RS”
Mobile: +63999-881-9345
Email – help.others.ras@gmail.com

——————————————-

A Look Into The New Testament

May 15, 2013

I recently released a very long 2 part document on who we should worship, concluding that we should worship only [original Hebrew alphabets hwhy] rather than any other “god” since this is what is taught in many many verses by the Scriptures and this teaching was identical to the teaching of the Yahshua (Jesus) in the New Testament.

 

Since this conclusion obviously goes against the “common belief”, people have asked me to explain more verses in the New Testament which their friends “shared with them” presumably to “refute” several pages of quotations from my 2-part document.

 

I have sharing about this subject matter to a friend. She quoted the ff.verses in John 1:1-2 and v.14. Please help me understand and explain this verses.

Thanks Coach for the enlightenment! Yahweh be blessed and honored!

 

Specifically, these verses read as follows:

John 1:1-2 NKJV 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God.

John 1:14 NKJV And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.

In what follows, I want to emphasize that I do not mean to be critical.  My goal in trying to explain these verses is to stimulate thinking,not to condemn, criticize or to quarrel.

 

So…even before one begins to “explain” these verses or any other verses in the New Testament, even more foundational questions must be asked and answered:

1] Why should we even spend time analyzing “New Testament” verses? We may as well spend a lot of time analyzing the Q’uran which says that Jesus is a servant of Allah …

2] How reliable is the New Testament to begin with? Which of the 43 English translations should we use as the standard? Why?

3] The cannon (“official books”) of the New Testament were put together by the Roman Catholic Church. Are they a trust worthy organization? Can anyone prove the New Testament is God’s Word?

 

Most “Christians” may not know the facts about the New Testament, and they have never double checked it. They have assumed that this is “God’s Word”. I was once one of these people and I preached the New Testament as God’s inerrant word for over 25 years. So I know a lot about the New Testament, probably more than most of your friends.

 

Even Josh McDowell, graduate of Wheaton College and Magna Cum Laude graduate of the Talbot Theological Seminary in his book “Evidence That Demands A Verdict” [chapter 4 page 39] admits that “what we are establishing here is the historical reliability of the Scriptures NOT ITS INSPIRATION.” He presents evidence that the New Testament books are historical — no evidence that it is “inspired”.

 

According to F.F. Bruce “The Books and The Parchments”, the first time the cannon became official in the church council – The Synod of Hippo – was in 393 A.D. This is therefore 360 years AFTER Jesus had died, assuming he died 33 AD. 360 years is a very long time

 

It is the same Roman Catholic Church that “added” the Deuterocanonical (Apocrypha) to the ancient Hebrew Scriptures. Yes they added books to the “Old Testament” — They even re-arranged the order of the books of the Hebrews. Then they introduced the “New Testament” (NT) in 393 A.D. and appended it to the Hebrew Scriptures and called it the Bible

 

In what follows, I want to emphasize that I do not mean to be critical.

 

My goal in trying to “explain” these verses is to stimulate thinking, not to condemn, criticize or to quarrel.

 

Most Evangelical (“Born Again”) “bible believing churches” do not recognize the validity of the deuterocanonical books (Apocrypha).

 

We get great insight into the THINKING of people as we investigate why “bible believing churches” do not accept the books that Roman Catholic Church has added to the TaNaK.

 

In their book “General Introduction to the Bible” (Moody Press 1968), authors Geisler and Nix give 10 testimonies of antiquity against the Apocrypha [page 73] which I quote below:

(1) Philo, Alexandrian Jewish Philosopher (20 B.C. – 40 A.D.) quoted the Old Testament prolifically and even recognized the three-fold division (Torah, Nevi’im, Ketuvim), BUT HE NEVER QUOTED FROM THE APOCRYPHA AS INSPIRED.

(2) Josephus(A.D.30-100),Jewish historian, explicitly excludes the Apocrypha, numbering the booksof the Old testament as 22. Neither does he quote these books as Scripture.

(3) Jesus and the New Testament writers NEVER ONCE QUOTE the Apocrypha although there are hundreds of quotes and references to almost all of the canonical books of the Old Testament.

(4) The Jewish scholars of Jamnia (90 A.D.) did not recognize the Apocrypha.

(5) No cannon or council of the Christian church for the first four centuries recognized the Apocrypha as

inspired.

(6) Many of the great fathers of the early church spoke out against the Apocrypha, for example, Origen,

Cyril of Jerusalem, and Athanasius. (7) Jerome (340-420 A.D.), the great scholar and translator of the Vulgate, rejected the Apocrypha as part of the cannon. He disputed across the Mediterranean with Augustine on this point. He at first refused even to translate the Apocryphal books into Latin, but later he made a hurried translation of a few of them. After his death and literally “over his dead body”, the Apocryphal books were brought into his Latin Vulgate directly from the Old Latin version.

(8) Many Roman Catholic scholars through the Reformation period rejected the Apocrypha.

(9) Luther and the Reformers rejected the canonicity of the Apocrypha.

(10) Not until 1946 A.D. in a polemical action at the Counter Reformation Council of Trent, did the Apocryphal books receive full canonical status by the Roman Catholic Church.

 

To me, these look like very strong REASONS WHY any thinking person would REJECT THE APOCRYPHA as being the “word of God”… Even the “great fathers” of the Catholic Church DISAGREED and spoke out against the Apocrypha.

 

But the most important reason, as far as I am concerned, is # (3) “Jesus and the New Testament writers Never Once quoted the Apocrypha….

 

As a “thinking” man, one would then have to conclude that the Roman Catholic Church (RCC) was not a church that Jesus respected or followed. On the one hand, you have the RCC insisting that the Apocrypha is God’s word. On the other hand, Jesus and many other stalwart personalities were not quoting these books.

 

How about you? Do you trust this Roman Catholic Church?

 

Do some research and you will see that this is the same church that:

(i) Supported the Nazis of Hitler in killing the Jews;

(ii) Used the name of God to get the Crusades to kill lots of Jews

(iii) Changed the 10 commandments of Scripture;

(iv) Changed the order of the Scriptures

(v) Changed the “Holy City” from Jerusalem to Rome;

(vi) Teaches that the “pope” is “infallible” and has higher authority than the Scriptures;

(vii) Committed overt violations against the commands of God in Scripture. Up till now RCC leaders continue to be involved in “sex scandals” especially against young boys.

 

This then is the church that put together the cannon of the New Testament (NT). Cannon basically just means they decided which books were “officially” included in the N T. On what basis would we believe that the NT is the Word of God?

 

So why would we stake our eternal destiny on the N T that was put together by the RCC 360 years AFTER Jesus [Yahshua] had died.

 

So like the Apocrypha which they never quoted, Yahshua and his apostles never once quoted the NT but they quoted very often from the Old Testament. Yahshua and his apostles never read the NT. Yahshua and his apostles never asked anyone to wait for the NT. Who called the Scriptures “Old Testament” anyway? Yahshua never did call it Old. He called it Scriptures.

 

Why would we believe the NT, when the RCC include the book of Hebrews as part of the NT when no one even knows who the author of this book is? (Recently, people are starting to claim that it is Paul who wrote this book even though it is not written in the same way as Paul writes his 13 other epistles.)

 

Why should we believe the NT when the majority of the NT writers were not even apostles of Yahshua? Mark and Luke were not apostles of Yahshua. Paul who wrote 13 out of the 22 Epistles was not one of the original 12 apostles.

 

In fact, Luke admits at the start of his gospel that he was not a direct eyewitness and that his report was actually based on “hearsay” from others:

Luke 1:1-3 NKJV 1 Inasmuch as many have taken in hand to set in order a narrative of those things which have been fulfilled among us, 2 just as those who from the beginning were eyewitnesses and ministers of the word delivered them to us, 3 it seemed good to me also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the very first, to write to you an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus,

 

Also note that Luke says in verse 3 that he had “perfect understanding of all things” — can we believe this? Paul, who wrote 13 (and the longest) epistles actually CONTRADICTS LUKE when Paul says:

1 Corinthians 13:9-12 NKJV 9 For we know in part and we prophesy in part. 10 But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away. 11 When I was a child, I spoke as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child; but when I became a man, I put away childish things. 12 For now we see in a mirror, dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part, but then I shall know just as I also am known.

 

In paraphrase English from the Good News Bible, we have a clearer translation that nothing is PERFECT while we are still here on earth …

1 Corinthians 13:9-12 GNB 9 For our gifts of knowledge and of inspired messages are only partial; 10 but when what is perfect comes, then what is partial will disappear. 11 When I was a child, my speech, feelings, and thinking were all those of a child; now that I am an adult, I have no more use for childish ways. 12 What we see now is like a dim image in a mirror; then we shall see face-to-face. What I know now is only partial; then it will be complete—as complete as God’s knowledge of me.

 

There are other very clear contradictions in the NT. For example, how Judas Iscariot died … Matthew 27:3-5 NKJV 3 Then Judas, His betrayer, seeing that He had been condemned, was remorseful and brought back the thirty pieces of silver to the chief priests and elders, 4 saying, “I have sinned by betraying innocent blood.” And they said, “What is that to us? You see to it!” 5 Then he threw down the pieces of silver in the temple and departed, and went and hanged himself.

Acts 1:15-22 NKJV 15 And in those days Peter stood up in the midst of the disciples (altogether the number of names was about a hundred and twenty), and said, 16 “Men and brethren, this Scripture had to be fulfilled, which the Holy Spirit spoke before by the mouth of David concerning Judas, who became a guide to those who arrested Jesus; 17 for he was numbered with us and obtained a part in this ministry.” 18 (Now this man purchased a field with the wages of iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst open in the middle and all his entrails gushed out. 19 And it became known to all those dwelling in Jerusalem; so that field is called in their own language, Akel Dama, that is, Field of Blood.) 20 “For it is written in the Book of Psalms: ‘LET HIS DWELLING PLACE BE DESOLATE, AND LET NO ONE LIVE IN IT’; and, ‘LET ANOTHER TAKE HIS OFFICE.’21 “Therefore, of these men who have accompanied us all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us, 22 beginning from the baptism of John to that day when He was taken up from us, one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection.”

 

Hanging himself is certainly different from falling and bursting open in the middle. Beyond this simple contradiction of how Judas died, there are some very important points in this passage:

(1) Note that Luke says that Peter said in verse 16 that “this Scripture had to be fulfilled, which the Holy Spirit spoke before by the mouth of David concerning Judas”,

a. As far as Peter the apostle was concerned, it is the HOLY SPIRIT who SPOKE these words written by King David in Psalms.

b. Peter believed that the Scripture would be fulfilled! What is written cannot be changed!

c. Peter believed that the Scriptures were to be OBEYED!

d. The situation in this passage was all the apostles including Mary were all in the room praying…when they prayed, they were reading the Scriptures! God answers our prayers through Scriptures.

(2) Note the words of Peter in verse 20 “For it is written in the Book of Psalms: ‘LET HIS DWELLING PLACE BE DESOLATE, AND LET NO ONE LIVE IN IT’; and, ‘LET ANOTHER TAKE HIS OFFICE.’

a. Peter quoted directly from Psalms 69:25 and Psalms 109:8

b. These are exactly the same words spoken by Yahshua to the devil 3 times in Matthew 4

c. Matthew 4:4 NKJV But He (Yahshua) answered and said,It is written, ‘MAN SHALL NOT LIVE BY BREAD ALONE, BUT BY EVERY WORD THAT PROCEEDS FROM THE MOUTH OF GOD.’ “

d. Matthew 4:10 NKJV Then Jesus said to him,Away with you, Satan! For it is written, ‘YOU SHALL WORSHIP THE LORD [YHWH] YOUR GOD, AND HIM ONLY YOU SHALL SERVE.’ “

e. Yahshua and his apostles were living their lives according to what is written in Scriptures because they believed the Scriptures were the words of God!

f. After the resurrection of Yahshua, Paul was preaching and he praised those listeners who would DOUBLE CHECK what Paul was preaching against what was written in the Scriptures. Should we therefore not follow the same procedure as these “fair-minded” Bereans? Why do we check against the N T which Yahshua and his apostles never endorsed?

g. Acts 17:10-11 NKJV Then the brethren immediately sent Paul and Silas away by night to Berea. When they arrived, they went into the synagogue of the Jews. These were more fair- minded than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness, and searched the Scriptures daily to find out whether these things were so.

(3) Note that the criteria Peter used to select who would replace Judas: Therefore, of these men who have accompanied us all the time that the Lord Jesus went in and out among us, beginning from the baptism of John to that day when He was taken up from us, one of these must become a witness with us of His resurrection.”

a. The replacement had to be actual EYEWITNESS.

b. Must have been there from the baptism of John;

c. Must have seen the resurrected Yahshua! d. Therefore, should not these criteria also be applied to those that would write the NT?

e. Luke, as we said above, admitted he was not an actual eyewitness of Yahshua, yet his writings are predominant in the “gospels” and he also wrote book of Acts.

f. Mark was not an eyewitness too.

g. Paul was not there from the beginning and all we have is his claim that he saw Yahshua.

h. This claim of Paul sounds very similar to the claims of John Smith of the Mormons, of a Pilipino preacher in Davao City who claims that God appeared to him and he is now the “appointed son of God”, of Mohammed, etc. i. But they were not EYEWITNESSES …therefore is their writing really of God?

 

Another clear example of contradictions that is most likely a result of not being actual eyewitnesses is the account in the gospels about the resurrection. The resurrection is supposed to be one of the most important events in the NT. Yet the four accounts about the resurrection tell very different “facts”. There is no consistency in their stories. Why? Maybe, the reason is because they were not there. They were not eyewitnesses.

 

Matthew 28:1-8 NKJV 1 Now after the Sabbath, as the first day of the week began to dawn, Mary Magdalene and the other Mary came to see the tomb. 2 And behold, there was a great earthquake; for an angel of the Lord descended from heaven, and came and rolled back the stone from the door, and sat on it. 3 His countenance was like lightning and his clothing as white as snow. 4 And the guards shook for fear of him, and became like dead men. 5 But the angel answered and said to the women, “Do not be afraid, for I know that you seek Jesus who was crucified. 6 He is not here; for He is risen, as He said. Come, see the place where the Lord lay. 7 And go quickly and tell His disciples that He is risen from the dead, and indeed He is going before you into Galilee; there you will see Him. Behold, I have told you.” 8 So they went out quickly from the tomb with fear and great joy, and ran to bring His disciples word.

 

Mark 16:1-8 NKJV 1 Now when the Sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, Mary the mother of James, and Salome bought spices, that they might come and anoint Him. 2 Very early in the morning, on the first day of the week, they came to the tomb when the sun had risen. 3 And they said among themselves, “Who will roll away the stone from the door of the tomb for us?” 4 But when they looked up, they saw that the stone had been rolled away—for it was very large. 5 And entering the tomb, they saw a young man clothed in a long white robe sitting on the right side; and they were alarmed. 6 But he said to them, “Do not be alarmed. You seek Jesus of Nazareth, who was crucified. He is risen! He is not here. See the place where they laid Him. 7 But go, tell His disciples—and Peter—that He is going before you into Galilee; there you will see Him, as He said to you.” 8 So they went out quickly and fled from the tomb, for they trembled and were amazed. And they said nothing to anyone for they were afraid.

 

Luke 24:1-10 NKJV 1 Now on the first day of the week, very early in the morning, they, and certain other women with them, came to the tomb bringing the spices which they had prepared. 2 But they found the stone rolled away from the tomb. 3 Then they went in and did not find the body of the Lord Jesus. 4 And it happened, as they were greatly perplexed about this that behold, two men stood by them in shining garments. 5 Then, as they were afraid and bowed their faces to the earth, they said to them, “Why do you seek the living among the dead? 6 He is not here, but is risen! Remember how He spoke to you when He was still in Galilee, 7 saying, ‘The Son of Man must be delivered into the hands of sinful men, and be crucified, and the third day rise again.‘ ” 8 And they remembered His words. 9 Then they returned from the tomb and told all these things to the eleven and to all the rest. 10 It was Mary Magdalene, Joanna, Mary the mother of James, and the other women among them, who told these things to the apostle.

 

John 20:1-2 NKJV 1 Now the first day of the week Mary Magdalene went to the tomb early, while it was still dark, and saw that the stone had been taken away from the tomb. 2 Then she ran and came to Simon Peter, and to the other disciple, whom Jesus loved, and said to them, “They have taken away the Lord out of the tomb, and we do not know where they have laid Him.” they said nothing to anyone, for they were afraid. women with them, who told these things to the apostles. 

 

You be the one to judge if this account can be considered God’s PRECISE / PERFECT word.

 

Was there really an earthquake as per Matthew? Why would the others not even mention it? Was there light already or was it dark? Was it an angel or a man? Were there one or two?

 

Were they on the inside of the tomb or outside? Were they standing or sitting? Why are the words to the women different in each account?

 

If there is that much “contradictions” about one of the most important “facts” about Christianity, how can we believe this is God’s word?

There is so much more to say and discover …but shouldn’t these be enough to make a rather clear conclusion?

 

SO WITH THAT AS A LONG BACKGROUND, LET US TACKLE THE VERSES THAT WE WERE ASKED TO “EXPLAIN” …

 

So let us first ask “What is the ultimate purpose of trying to explain these verses”? Do you, or whoever you are talking to, suggest that these verses PROVE beyond reasonable doubt that Yahshua is Divine?

 

Do you already have a pre-conceived conclusion that Yahshua is divine and you want to use these verses to prove it? (Deductive method) Or are you willing to suspend all conclusions until the investigation is finished, and then make a conclusion.

 

If you conclude from these verses that Yahshua is divine, should you then recommend to the world to worship Yahshua, rather than Yahweh, his Father, as is being done in many “churches”?

 

If these verses say that Yahshua is NOT DIVINE, what actions would you take?

 

Can the divinity of Yahshua (or anyone) be proven with two verses, read in an English translation from a Greek translation of a Hebrew or Aramaic original? The translation of which may even be very vague?

 

Even though I cannot see much logic in this exercise, let us proceed to do some “investigations” … Specifically, these verses read in English as follows:

John 1:1-2 NKJV 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God.

John 1:14 NKJV And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.

 

It is obviously using symbolism (Word) that most people I believe may not be able to understand what John meant …as we are reading in the English… with a culture and perspective that is very different from the Hebrew perspective…

 

“In the beginning” — this says there was a beginning — does God have a beginning? Logic tells us that God obviously does not have a beginning. Anything with a beginning cannot be God by definition.

 

“Word” is translated from the Greek word “Logos”

This word “logos” occurs 331 times in the N T … It is translated in many different ways … The fact that the English is capitalized shows a translator’s bias. The Greek is a small “l”.

 

Here is what Vine’s Greek Expository Dictionary says this word means:

logos (G3056), “a word or saying,” also means “an account which one gives by word of mouth” (cf. No. 4), Mat_12:36; Mat_18:23, RV, “reckoning”; Mat_16:2; Act_19:40; Act_20:24 (KJV, “count”); Rom_14:12; Phi_4:17; Heb_13:17; 1Pe_4:5. See CAUSE, COMMUNICATION, DO, DOCTRINE, FAME, INTENT, MATTER, MOUTH, PREACHING, QUESTION, REASON, RECKONING, RUMOR, SAYING, SHEW, SPEECH, TALK, THING, TIDINGS, TREATISE, UTTERANCE, WORD, WORK.

 

So what the “word expert” is saying is that “logos” is SOMETHING SPOKEN … therefore it is not even a PERSON but it is speech of someone…

John 1:3 NKJV 3 All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.

 

I’m adding verse 3 so we can see the “context” — It seems that this “word” was the “word” that Yahweh spoke during the creation … Gen 1:3“Let there be light …” Let there be …

 

The Word was WITH GOD …It does NOT say the word is God… It says it was WITH GOD meaning distinct from God.

 

The Word WAS God — Notice it is PAST TENSE … it is not present. Could this mean that it once was God but is now not God anymore?

 

1:14 which says “the Word became flesh” clearly says that whatever the word was, it is now flesh. SO rather than proving that Yahshua is divine, it is clear from this verse that Yahshua is man, flesh.

The same author, John, in chapter 4 writes that Yahshua said this:

 

John 4:20-24 NKJV 20 Our fathers worshiped on this mountain, and you Jews say that in Jerusalem is the place where one ought to worship.” 21 Jesus said to her, “Woman, believe Me, the hour is coming when you will neither on this mountain, nor in Jerusalem, worship the Father. 22 You worship what you do not know; we know what we worship, for salvation is of the Jews. 23 But the hour is coming, and now is, when the true worshipers will worship the Father in spirit and truth; for the Father is seeking such to worship Him. 24 God is Spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth.”

 

Here John is quoting Yahshua as saying that “GOD IS SPIRIT” therefore if the word is flesh, and God is spirit, then the word IS NOT GOD.

 

As an aside, we have to give more weight to the words spoken by Yahshua than the words spoken or written by John or other N T writers. John 1:1-14 is written by John. The above verses are spoken by Yahshua …The words of Yahshua should carry more weight …

 

To repeat, Yahshua, according to John, is clearly teaching that people must WORSHIP THE FATHER. This is such a simple statement that does not need much “interpreting”. A child can easily understand this teaching.

 

So is there need for further analysis? The greatest frustration of Yahshua is captured in his words: “But why do you call me Lord, Lord and DO NOT DO THE THINGS WHICH I SAY?” (Luke 6:46)

 

Did Yahshua not clearly state who we should worship? We must worship the Father. If Yahshua wanted to be worshipped too, would he not have said so? If there are three persons in one god, as the RCC teaches, should we not worship all three? Why does Yahshua teach we should worship only the Father?

 

As the Bereans double checked with Scripture to see whether Paul’s teaching was correct or not …we should examine the Scriptures to see whether the teaching of Yahshua is consistent with that of the Scriptures.

 

Does the Scripture teach that everyone should worship the Father and serve Him only?

 

My first document goes into this question extensively and shows tons of verses in Scripture which COMMAND us to worship the Father and Him only.

 

One of the verses I cited above was Matthew 4:10 where Yahshua quotes the Torah (first part of Scripture) to the devil …

 

Matthew 4:10 NKJV Then Jesus said to him [the devil], “Away with you, Satan! For it is written, ‘YOU SHALL WORSHIP THE LORD [YHWH] YOUR GOD, AND HIM ONLY YOU SHALL SERVE.’ “

 

Once again we see Yahshua quoting directly what is WRITTEN in the Scriptures (Old Testament).

 

Did you ever consider that if one quotes the N T that it could be powerless against the devil if it is not God’s word? Maybe this is why the fruit of lives in N T churches are not very good. Look at the USA, where the theological schools and “bible belt” are concentrated, are their lives worth imitating? They are living lives in direct contradiction of God’s Scriptures.

 

If we look at the lives of the leaders of the N T churches, we see more “scandal” than good. Is it possible that there is really no power in what they put their trust on?

 

Yahshua in Matthew 4 quoted from the Torah as follows:

Deuteronomy 6:12-15 NKJV 12 then beware, lest you forget the LORD [YHWH] who brought you out of the land of Egypt, from the house of bondage. 13 You shall fear the LORD [YHWH] your God and serve Him, and shall take oaths in His name. 14 You shall not go after other gods, the gods of the peoples who are all around you 15 (for the LORD [YHWH] your God is a jealous God among you), lest the anger of the LORD [YHWH] your God be aroused against you and destroy you from the face of the earth.

 

Deuteronomy 10:20-21 NKJV 20 You shall fear the LORD [YHWH] your God; you shall serve Him, and to Him you shall hold fast, and take oaths in His name. 21 He is your praise, and He is your God, who has done for you these great and awesome things which your eyes have seen.

 

So we MUST CONCLUDE that the teaching of Yahshua to worship the Father only is CONSISTENT with the standard of Scripture. It is obviously DIFFERENT from the teaching of the RCC or the “Jesus worshipping” churches.

 

Continuing on with the study of John 1:14 … Let’s look at the Greek …

 

The Greek word for “became” (flesh) is “ginomai” – Strong’s Dictionary says ginomai ( ) means to “cause to be”. In other words, someone or something “caused” the word to be flesh …

 

Vine’s Expository Dictionary says ginomai means “to become,” signifies a change of condition, state or place Question: does God change? Scripture teaches that God DOES NOT CHANGE …

 

Malachi 3:6 NKJV 6 “For I am the LORD [YHWH], I do not change; Therefore you are not consumed, O sons of Jacob.

 

The NT teaches the same truth:

James 1:17 NKJV 17 Every good gift and every perfect gift is from above, and comes down from the Father of lights, with whom there is no variation or shadow of turning.

 

The Greek word for variation means “transmutation”. Is Yahshua a “mutant”?

 

Thus “became flesh” is clear evidence that Yahshua is NOT GOD. It is very clear that John is teaching that a change occurred.

 

GREEK Word STUDY

G1096

 

In verse 14 there is another instance of a CONTRADICTION … John writes

“we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.”

 

But three verses later John writes:

John 1:17-18 NKJV 17 For the law was given through Moses, but grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him. No one has seen God at any time …therefore if no man has seen God at any time then how can you know what His glory looks like …

 

John writes that “grace and truth came through Yahshua” … preceded by the word “BUT” to contrast it with the law of Moses …John is saying that there was no grace or truth in the law (Torah) of Moses. Is this correct?

 

There is a contradiction here versus the Scriptures because long before Yahshua became flesh YHWH was already dispensing grace …

 

Genesis 6:8 NKJV 8 But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD.

Everything that God has done from the beginning has been through grace …man does not merit anything …

Obviously truth came long before Yahshua became flesh…

 

Psalms 119:142 Your righteousness is an everlasting righteousness, And Your law is truth. Psalms 119:151 you are near, O LORD [YHWH], And all Your commandments are truth.

Psalms 119:160 The entirety of Your word is truth, And every one of Your righteous judgments endures forever.

 
I would like to end with the study of the name “Jesus”.

 

How would you feel if someone changed your name?

“Worshippers” keep saying the name “Jesus” which is not the name of the Messiah to begin with …

They are saying his name every Sunday which is not the day that YHWH commanded his people to worship Him …

 

They are avoiding lifting up the Father’s name YHWH … Is this truth?

 

Is this the way that YHWH wants His worshippers to worship Him … in spirit (not in flesh) and truth?

 

The translators of the English bible have changed the name to “Jesus”. What was the original name?

The name of the Messiah, in Hebrew- his own language, is [Hebrew alphabet] , which means “Yahweh is salvation” or “Yahweh saves”. The name “Jesus” is the result of a series of changes from Hebrew to a Latinized Greek. The word is not a transliteration, and it cannot be translated, since it is a hybrid word.

Hebrew names can be translated; they make a statement, such as, Yahshua = “Yahweh is salvation”. The word “Jesus” does not deliver the message that Yahweh is salvation. [And, of course, “Jesus” was never actually his name.]

 

The pronunciation of varies among different groups. Since the Hebrew spelling is exactly the same as “Joshua”, the son of Nun, some people pronounce it as “Joshua” with a “Y” sound – Yahshua; the “Y” would be the correct sound since the “J” sound does not exist in Hebrew. In fact, because of the same spelling, the King James Version mistranslated Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 using “Jesus” instead of “Joshua” (other versions like the NIV have corrected this). In reality, the name of Joshua and the name of the Messiah were the same name.

 

We can understand, now, that “Jesus” would not have been the name that Miriam (Mary) was told to give her son. The “J” sound didn’t exist then, and doesn’t exist now, in the Hebrew or Aramaic languages. In fact, it didn’t exist in English until 500 years ago.

 

Matthew 1:21-23 NKJV 21 And she will bring forth a Son, and you shall call His name JESUS, for He will save His people from their sins.” 22 So all this was done that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying: 23 “BEHOLD, THE VIRGIN SHALL BE WITH CHILD, AND BEAR A SON, AND THEY SHALL CALL HIS NAME IMMANUEL,” which is translated, “God with us.”

 

Strong’s Concordance states that “Jesus” #2424 – Iesous is of Hebrew origin #3091 – yeh-ho shoo’-ah; and that this is also the name of Joshua, the Jewish leader. Some people state that the ancient pronunciation of this name is Ya-HO-shu-wa, and that by the time of the Messiah, the “HO” had been dropped; I have seen no written study of this.

 

Strong’s has obvious errors, “Yeh” instead of “Yah.” His vowel points are of more Modern Hebrew usage; he uses a sheva instead of a pattach and thus gets “Yeh.” And, he uses “Jehovah” instead of “Yahweh.”

In the “context of verse 22, for the Scripture to be fulfilled, shouldn’t the Messiah’s name be “Immanuel”, not “Jesus”?

 

What is the truth is “hidden” because translators are basing their translations on the Greek text rather than the Hebrew? Why is that? Probably best if one wanted to “hide” the truth …

The Scriptures are written in Hebrew …the N T are translated from the Greek … Isn’t this strange since Yahshua and all the N T writers were Hebrew?

 

Yeshua” is the name used by today’s Jews and messianic believers when referring to the Messiah. The “Ye” was a replacement of “Yah” to avoid pronouncing the Father’s name even in its shortened, poetic form [a traditional Jewish restriction that began at the time of the Babylonian exile]. Using Yeshua does not honor Yahweh as intended in Matthew 1:21 above. By pronouncing Yahshua, we state that Yahweh is salvation.

 

As I close, I would like to quote these verses from Matthew:

Matthew 7:20-23 NKJV 20 Therefore by their fruits you will know them. 21 “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ shall enter the kingdom of heaven, but he who does the will of My Father in heaven. 22 Many will say to Me in that day, ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in Your name, cast out demons in Your name, and done many wonders in Your name?’ 23 And then I will declare to them, ‘I never knew you; depart from Me, you who practice lawlessness!’

 

These words supposedly written by Matthew (there is no real indication that Matthew the tax collector wrote this gospel) CLEARLY tell us that on judgment day, MANY will be calling Jesus Lord, Lord and claiming that they are doing great things IN HIS NAME. Are you part of this group?

 

If we meditate on this even for a short while, we can conclude WHO THESE PEOPLE ARE WHO CALL JESUS LORD.

 

Do the Muslims, or Buddhists, or Hindus, or any other major religious group call Jesus Lord? No they do not! Today, the only groups who call Jesus Lord are the RCC, born again, evangelicals, and “full gospel” churches.

 

They may have a surprise waiting for them on judgment day. “I Never Knew You.” — This means these people were DECEIVED. They were not on the same side as the Messiah. Maybe they were using the WRONG NAME.

 

Verse 21 is clear on who will enter the kingdom of heaven — “he who does the will of my Father in heaven”. The others, in contrast, are those who practice “law-less-ness”. In other words, they are without the “law” (torah) or “nomos” in Greek.

 

I pray that this study has stimulated your thinking.

In the final analysis, the decision of who to worship is very personal.

It is your decision.

However, that decision is very fundamental.

An error in this decision will have consequences that are ETERNAL.

There are many many N T verses that we can analyse but since Yahshua himself clearly teaches that we should WORSHIP only the Father and quotes the TaNaK frequently as the word of Yahweh, I highly recommend that we start doing the same thing.

 

Let us follow the example of Yahshua, his apostles, and the Bereans to spend time DAILY studying Scripture.

 

A study of God’s word will always be more productive than a study of man’s words … You will know the TRUTH and the truth shall set you free.

 

Contact me if you have any more clarifications,

To YHWH be all praise, glory, power and majesty!

“RS” Mobile: +63999-881-9345 Email – help.others.ras@gmail.com

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